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  • I know I’m terribly lazy but I wish the Prophet Pearls for Kings that parallel the Chronicles readings were linked to the reading calendar for Chronicles (coming up soon for me)

    I think there is a benefit to hearing something more than once.

  • Hey there, Prophet Patriots (Keith and Nehemiah).

    Another great contribution to the study of YeHoVaH’s word in the 1 Kings 1:1-1:31 haftarah portion coming from the dynamic duo; that banner for your program is great. It really is great to hear both of you again digging for solid information on the ancient Hebrew sources of faith. I could use some clarity on what was briefly mentioned in I Kings 1:1-31.

    Maybe it is only in how I heard Keith’s ‘softball’ toss of ‘virgin’ (bethuwlah) in 1 Kings 1:1-1:31 as contrasted with Isaiah 7:14 (almah), to which Nehemiah offered the “obvious” home-run that Isaiah’s use does not allow virgin. I’m not sure what the point in that was, unless it is to cast doubt on the understanding [in my words] found in Matthew’s take on the verse in Hebrew Matthew (and in English Matt. 1:23).

    My point (?): If the Hebrew writer of Matthew concluded that the Hebrew writer of Isaiah (as is pertains to the use of almah for ‘virgin’ verses ‘maiden’ or ‘young woman’) was correct in saying “virgin (bethuwlah),” then the more obvious understanding, when comparing scripture with scripture, is found in the associated Torah portion, Genesis 23:1-25:18.

    The Pearl: I find it fascinating that YeHoVaH would inspire the Hebrew text that Moses was writing for Hebrew believers to include (1st) bethuwlah in Genesis 24:16 and secondly almah in verse 43, both of which were accurately translated into virgin. Here is the same author in the same language writing about the same characters (Abraham’s servant and Rebekah)…all in the same chapter calling Rebekah bethuwlah-almah-virgin. Possible for sure, but is it likely that Isaiah understood Moses’s use of the Hebrew language in antiquity pertaining to how, when, and whom either bethuwlah or almah (perhaps both) are used, and thereafter translated into virgin? I think the quick teamwork comment to included an unrelated text to the scheduled reading is a foul play and falls into eisegesis. Brethren, please stick with exegesis, because the support for *Isa. 7:14’s ‘virgin’ is absolutely and correctly withing the bounds of this field, causing both of you in this portion to be found wanting. You guys missed that pearl.

    In love: Brethren, keep reading…

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